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Commerce 2012 June Paper 2 Solved

COMMERCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2)
marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Which of the following denote the
structural changes in Indian economy ?
 (A) Primary sector contribution has
gone down.
 (B) Service sector contribution has
gone up.
 (C) Secondary sector has not
changed much.
 (D) All of the above
Answer:(D)

2. Broad Money has to be sensitized
through :
 (A) CRR
 (B) SLR
 (C) Repo Rate
 (D) All of the above
Answer:(D)

3. Which one is not an element of legal
environment ?
 (A) Act of Parliamentarians in Lok
Sabha
 (B) Indian Contract Act, 1872
 (C) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
 (D) Negotiable instruments Act,
1881
Answer:(A)

4. Out of the following, which are four
dimensions of Human Development
Index ?
 (i) Life Expectancy
 (ii) Literacy Level
 (iii) Success Rate of Marriages
 (iv) Standard of Living
 (v) Crime Rate
 (vi) Corruption Level
 (vii) Economic Entitlement
 (viii) Foreign Visits
Codes :
 (A) (i), (ii), (vi) and (viii)
 (B) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vii)
 (C) (ii), (iii), (vi) and (vii)
 (D) (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)
Answer:(B)

5. Public Enterprise is defined as
 (A) An organisation run by joint
efforts of Centre and State
Governments.
 (B) An organisation which caters to
the needs relating to public
utilities.
 (C) An organisation in which capital
is invested by public.
 (D) An organisation owned and
managed by public authorities
for definite set of public
purposes.
Answer:(D)

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer :
List – I  List – II
(i) Measurement
of income  (a) Accrues to
the equity of
owners
(ii) Recognition
of expense  (b) Recognition
of revenue

(iii) Basis of  (c) Matching revenue with
realization   expenses
 
(iv) Identification
of revenue  (d) Accounting period

Codes :
 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 (A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (B) (b) (a) (c) (d)
 (C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
 (D) (c) (d) (b) (a)
Answer:(D)


7. Consider the following items :
 (i) Debentures
 (ii) Prepaid rent
 (iii) Interest accrued
 (iv) Bank overdraft
 Which of them are current liabilities ?
 (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
 (B) (iv)
 (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
 (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:(B)

8. Conversion cost is the sum of
 (A) Indirect wages and factory
overhead
 (B) Direct wages, direct expenses
and factory overhead
 (C) Direct material cost and indirect
wages
 (D) Prime cost and selling &
distribution overhead
Answer:(B)


9. (A) Assertion : Premium received on
issue of shares is credited to
share premium account but not to
Profit and Loss account.
(R) Reasoning : Since share premium
is not a trading profit, it is not
distributed to shareholders.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not correct explanation to (A).
 (B) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
 (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is correct explanation of (A).
 (D) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
Answer:(C)


10. Consider the following :
 (i) Basic defensive and interval ratio
 (ii) Current ratio
 (iii) Superquick ratio
 (iv) Quick ratio
 Arrange these ratios in sequence to
reflect the liquidity in descending
order.
 (A) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
 (B) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
 (C) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
 (D) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
Answer:(A)


11. Normally Demand curve slopes
 (A) Upward
 (B) Downward
 (C) Horizontal
 (D) Vertical
Answer:(B)

12. Which of the following refers to
Perfect Competition ?
 (i) There are restrictions on buyers
and sellers
 (ii) There are no restrictions on
movement of goods
 (iii) There are no restrictions on
factors of production
 Correct one is
 (A) only (i) and (ii)
 (B) only (ii) and (iii)
 (C) only (i) and (iii)
 (D) only (i)
Answer:(B)


13. Assertion (A): Total utility will be
maximum when marginal utility
to price of respective products
are equal.
Reason (R) : Deviation from this
situation leads to reduction in
maximum utility.
 (A) (A) and (R) are not correct.
 (B) (A) is correct but (R) is not
correct.
 (C) (A) and (R) are correct.
 (D) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
Answer:(C)


14. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer.
List – I  List – II
(i) Survival  (a) Economic
Objective

(ii) R.O.I  (b) Natural Urge

(iii) Growth  (c) Business  Purpose

(iv) Innovation  (d) Primary Objective

 Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
 (B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
 (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer:(A)

15. Consider the oligopoly models :
 (i) Sweezy’s kinked demand curve
model
 (ii) Newman and Morgenstern Game
Theory model
 (iii) Cournal’s duopoly model
 (iv) Baumal’s sales maximisation
model
 Arrange them in correct sequence as
per order of evolution.
 (A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
 (B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
 (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
 (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:(C)


16. Which of the following is not a restricted
random sampling technique ?
 (A) Stratified sampling
 (B) Simple random sampling
 (C) Systematic sampling
 (D) Multistage sampling
Answer:(B)

17. Classification of respondents only on
the basis of gender is an application of
 (A) Ordinal scale
 (B) Nominal scale
 (C) Interval scale
 (D) Ratio scale
Answer:(B)


18. Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of
correlation between two variables is
 (A) the product of their standard
deviations
 (B) the square root of the product of
their regression co-efficients
 (C) the co-variance between the
variables
 (D) None of the above
Answer:(B)


19. Statistical software packages for
research in social sciences include
 (A) SPSS
 (B) STATA
 (C) MiniTab
 (D) All of the above
Answer:(D)

20. F-test is used to test the significance of
the differences between/among
 (A) Two sample mean
 (B) More than two samples mean
 (C) Variance of two samples
 (D) (B) and (C)
Answer:(D)

21. Match the following
List-I  List-II
(i) The Practice of  (a) Henry Fayol
Management 

(ii) Philosophy of  (b) F.W. Taylor
Management
(iii) Scientific  (c) Oliver Sheldon
Management 


(iv) General and  Industrial (d) Peter F Drucker
     Administration          

Codes :
 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 (A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (B) (d) (c) (b) (a)
 (C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
 (D) (c) (d) (b) (a)
Answer:(B)


22. Identify the correct sequence of steps
involved in planning :
 (i) Selecting the best course of
action
 (ii) Establishing the sequence of
activities
 (iii) Establishment of objectives
 (iv) Evaluating alternative courses
 (v) Determining alternative courses
 (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
 (B) (iii), (v), (iv), (ii) and (i)
 (C) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
 (D) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)
Answer:(D)


23. Assertion (A) : One can be sure about
future course of actions by
making good plans.
 Reasoning (R) : Planning brings
certainty in future course of
actions of an organisation.
 (A) (R) is correct but (A) is not
correct.
 (B) (A) is correct but (R) is not
correct.
 (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
 (D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
Answer:(A)

24. According to Kieth Devis, which one
is not a barrier of communication ?
 (A) Physical Barriers
 (B) Technological Barriers
 (C) Personal Barriers
 (D) Linguistic Barriers
Answer:(B)


25. While establishing relation between
Maslow’s and Herzberg’s theories,
which Needs of Hierachy Theory will
fall under the Hygiene Factors ?
 (A) Self actualisation, esteem and
social needs
 (B) Esteem, social and safety needs
 (C) Social, safety and physiological
needs
 (D) Only social needs
Answer:(C)


26. Howard-Sueth model of consumer
behaviour is popularly known as
 (A) Machine Model
 (B) Human Model
 (C) Marketing Model
 (D) Purchase Model
Answer:(A)


27. To generate and facilitate any
exchange intended to satisfy human
needs or wants such that the
satisfaction of these wants occur with
minimal detrimental impact on the
natural environment is known as
 (A) Aggressive marketing
 (B) Operating marketing
 (C) Green marketing
 (D) All of the above
Answer:(C)

28. All the activities involved in selling
goods or services directly to final
consumers for personal non-business
uses are done by
 (A) Wholesalers
 (B) Retailers
 (C) Mediators
 (D) Commission Agents
Answer:(B)

29. To manage a business well is to
manage its future and to manage the
future is to manage information is
termed as
 (A) Management information system
 (B) Marketing information system
 (C) Future information system
 (D) General information system
Answer:(A)


30. DAGMAR approach in marketing is
used to measure
 (A) Public relations
 (B) Advertising results
 (C) Selling volume
 (D) Consumer satisfaction
Answer:(B)


31. Which one is not an important
objective of Financial Management ?
 (A) Profit Maximisation
 (B) Wealth Maximisation
 (C) Value Maximisation
 (D) Maximisation of social benefits
Answer:(D)


32. Which one refers to cash inflow under
payback period method ?
 (A) Cash flow before depreciation
and taxes
 (B) Cash flow after depreciation and
taxes
 (C) Cash flow after depreciation but
before taxes
 (D) Cash flow before depreciation
and after taxes
Answer:(D)

33. The concept of present value is based
on the :
 (A) Principle of compounding
 (B) Principle of discounting
 (C) (A) and (B)
 (D) None of the above
Answer:(B)


34. Cost of capital from all the sources of
funds is called
 (A) Specific cost
 (B) Composite cost
 (C) Implicit cost
 (D) Simple Average cost
Answer:(B)

35. Match the following with most suitable
option :
(a) Modigiliani (i) Commercial
Miller apparoach  Papers

(b) Net Operating  (ii) Working Capital
Income Approach  Management

 (c) Short term
Money  (iii) Capital Structure
Market
Instrument

 (d) Factoring  (iv) Arbitrage
Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
 (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
 (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
 (D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Answer:(A)

36. Which four are the factors influencing
the Human Resource Management of
an organisation ?
 (i) Size of workforce
 (ii) Employee Expectations
 (iii) Composition of workforce
 (iv) Political influence
 (v) Changes in technology
 (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
 (B) (i),(ii), (iii) and (v)
 (C) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
 (D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Answer:(C)


37. Assertion (A) : One can not be sure
about the quality of appraisal on
the basis of length of service.
Reasoning (R) : Initial appraisal and
promotional appraisal are done
separately and differently since
the length of service is different.
(A) (R) is correct but (A) is not
correct.
 (B) (A) is correct but (R) is not
correct.
 (C) (A) and (R) both are correct.
 (D) (A) and (R) both are not correct.
Answer:(D)


38. Which of the following are covered
under the scope of Human Resource
Management ?
 (i) Forecasting Human Resource
Needs
 (ii) Replacement Planning
 (iii) Human Resource Dynamics
 (iv) Human Resource Development
Planning
 (v) Human Resource Audit
 (A) (i), (iii), (v)
 (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
 (C) (iii), (v)
 (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
Answer:(D)

39. On which of the following, at the
initial stage, the Indian IT companies
relying more for getting good IT
professionals ?
 (A) Job Portals
 (B) Placement Agencies
 (C) Campus Placement
 (D) All of the above
Answer:(C)


40. Statement (i) : Labour always get a
major share of productivity
gains.
Statement (ii) : Partial stoppage of
work by workers amounts to
strike.
(A) Statement (i) is true but (ii) is
false.
 (B) Statement (ii) is true but (i) is
false.
 (C) Both statements are true.
 (D) Both statements are false.
Answer:(B)


41. Imperial Bank was established on
January 27, 1921 on the advise of
 (A) J. M. Keynes
 (B) Lord Illingworth
 (C) King George V
 (D) Winston Churchill
Answer:(A)

42. Read the following events :
 (i) Allowing convertibility of rupee
at the market rate in the current
account
 (ii) Nationalisation of general
insurance business
 (iii) Establishment of IDBI
 (iv) Nationalisation of life insurance
business
 (v) Capital adequacy norms for
commercial banks
 Arrange the events in the ascending
order of their occurrence :
 (A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i), (v)
 (B) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
 (C) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)
 (D) (i), (v), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Answer:(A)


43. In India, the Commercial Banks are
given license of operation by
 (A) The Government of India
 (B) The Ministry of Finance
 (C) Reserve Bank of India
 (D) Banking Companies Regulation
Act, 1949
Answer:(C)


44. The provisions of General Reserve in
Banking Companies are made keeping
in view the provisions of
 (A) Indian Companies Act, 1956
 (B) Banking Companies Act, 1949
 (C) SEBI Act, 1992
 (D) Statutory Auditor
Answer:(B)

45. Which among the following is not true
with regard to merchant banker ?
 (i) It can accept deposits.
 (ii) It can advance loans.
 (iii) It can do other banking activities.
 (iv) It can be manager to a public
issue.
 (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
 (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
 (C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
 (D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:(A)

46. Balance of Payments can be made
favourable if
 (A) Exports are increased
 (B) Imports are increased
 (C) Devaluation of money
 (D) (A) and (C)
Answer:(D)


47. Which one is not an objective of IMF ?
 (A) To promote international
monetary co-operation
 (B) To ensure balanced international
trade
 (C) To finance productive efforts
according to peace-time
requirement
 (D) To ensure exchange rate stability
Answer:(C)

48. EPCG denotes
 (A) Export Potential and Credit
Guarantee
 (B) Earning Promotion and Credit
Guarantee
 (C) Export Promotion and Credit
Guarantee
 (D) Export Potential and Credit
Goods
Answer:(C)

49. Which one of the following matches
correspond to the Member and
Observer countries of the SAARC ?
 (i) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh,
Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka,
Afghanistan, Maldive
 (ii) Iran, China, Japan, USA, South
Korea, European Union
 (iii) Pakistan, Nepal, India,
Bangladesh, Iran
 (iv) UK, USA, North Korea, South
Africa
 (A) (iii) and (iv)
 (B) (ii) and (iv)
 (C) (i) and (ii)
 (D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:(C)


50. Which one is not an international
organisation ?
 (A) SAARC
 (B) ASEM
 (C) ASEAN
 (D) CBDT
Answer:(D)

Commerce 2012 June Paper 2 Solved Commerce 2012 June Paper 2 Solved Reviewed by Australian Stock Exchange Inc on 04:46:00 Rating: 5

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Prashant Davanageri UGC NET Karnataka
Rajput Gali Betgeri-582102, Karnataka India.
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