COMMERCE
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type
questions of two (2) marks each. Allquestions are compulsory.
questions of two (2) marks each. Allquestions are compulsory.
1. Match the items of List – I with List – II :
List – I List – II
(International Economic Groups) (Year of Establishment)
a. European Union (EU) i. 1973
b. European Free Trade Association (EFTA) ii. 1992
c. Caribbean Community (CARICOM) iii. 1985
d. South Asian Association for Regional iv. 1960
Cooperation (SAARC)
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iv ii i iii
(D) iii i ii iv
Answer:(B)
2. The important objectives of WTO are :
(i) To improve the quality of technology in the member countries.
(ii) To improve the standard of living of people in the member countries.
(iii) To ensure full employment and broad increase in effective demand.
(iv) To enlarge production and trade of goods.
(v) To increase trade of services
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Answer:(B)
3. Assertion (A) : The industrial growth in India has been hampered by the burden of many
controls and regulations.
Reason (R) : The New Industrial Policy seeks to liberate the industry from the shackles of
Licensing System.
Codes :
(A) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is not correct.
(B) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is right explanation of (A).
(C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect
Answer:(A)
4. Internal environment of a business includes :
(i) Business ethics and moral standards
(ii) Business and managerial policies
(iii) Prospects of business development
(iv) Government rules and regulations
(v) Industrial relations
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer:(D)
5. Identify the incorrect combination from the following :
Finance Constituted Report Chairman
Commission (Year) Submitted (Year)
(A) 1st 1951 1953 K.C. Neogi
(B) 7th 1977 1978 J.M. Shelat
(C) 11th 1998 2000 N.K.P. Salve
(D) 13th 2007 2009 V.L. Kelkar
Answer:(C)
6. A flexible budget requires careful study and classification of expenses into
(A) Product expenses and period expenses
(B) Past and current expenses
(C) Administrative, selling and factory expenses
(D) Fixed, semi-variable and variable expenses
Answer:(D)
7. Responsibility accounting aims at collecting and reporting costing information
(A) Department-wise (B) Cost centre-wise
(C) Function-wise (D) Product-wise
Answer:(B)
8. Return on Investment (RoI) is computed as
(A) Net Profit Ratio × Capital Turnover Ratio
(B) Operating Net Profit Ratio × Shareholders Fund
(C) Net Profit / Sales
(D) Cost of Sales / Capital Employed
Answer:(A)
9. Margin of Safety is calculated by using
(A) Profit/P / V Ratio
(B)Fixed Cost/Contribution
(C) Break Even Sales/Sales
(D)Profit/Sales
Answer:(A)
10. Pre-acquisition profit in subsidiary company is considered as
(A) Revenue profit (B) Capital profit
(C) Goodwill (D) Minority interest
Answer:(B)
11. Assertion (A) : The financial statements prepared on historical cost basis result into an
erosion of capital in the long run.
Reason (R) : Maintaining the books of accounts as per Current Purchasing Power
Technique only may contain the inflationary pressure.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct one ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(B)
12. Secondary market intermediaries for corporate securities in India are
I. Investors II. Jobbers
III. Brokers and sub-brokers IV. Portfolio consultants
Codes :
(A) I, II and III only (B) II, III and IV only
(C) II and III only (D) III and IV only
Answer:(B)
13. The type of lease requiring an agreement between the financier and lessor is known as
(A) Financial lease (B) Sale and lease back
(C) Leveraged lease (D) Operating lease
Answer:(C)
14. Match the various stock exchanges in List – I with the years of their establishment in
List – II as follows and suggest the correct code :
List – I List – II
a. National Stock Exchange (NSE) i. 1875
b. MCX Stock Exchange (MCX-SX) ii. 1992
c. Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) iii. 2000
d. Interconnected Stock Exchange of India (ISEI) iv. 2008
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) iii ii iv i
Answer:(A)
15. Monopolists prefer to sell the products in the markets with
(A) Elastic demand (B) Unitary elastic demand
(C) Inelastic demand (D) Absence of elasticity of demand
Answer:(A)
16. Assertion (A) : In long run under Perfect Competition all firms invariably get only normal
profit.
Reason (R) : All firms incur minimum average cost and incur no selling cost due to
absence of product differentiation.
Codes :
(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct.
(B) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(C) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
(D) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are incorrect.
Answer:(C)
17. Assertion (A) : Differential pricing structure is designed to accommodate the various
categories of buyers.
Reason (R) : It aims at increasing sales and revenues and driving the competitors out
from the market.
Codes :
(A) Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) both are correct.
(B) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reasoning (R) is incorrect.
(C) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reasoning (R) is correct.
(D) Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) both are incorrect.
Answer:(B)
18. Cost-plus pricing is considered appropriate for :
I. Product Tailoring II. Public Utility Pricing
III. Refusal Pricing IV. Monopoly Pricing
Codes :
(A) I and II only (B) I, II and III only
(C) II, III and IV only (D) III and IV only
Answer:(B)
19. For promoting sales advertising endeavours may be made as per
I. Competitive parity II. Objective and task
III. Tied sales IV. All-one-can-Afford
Codes :
(A) I and II only (B) II, III and IV only
(C) I, II and IV only (D) III and IV only
Answer:(C)
20. In the hypothesis testing procedure a researcher may commit type II error in which of the
following conditions ?
(A) When the true null hypothesis is rejected.
(B) When the alternative hypothesis is accepted.
(C) When the false null hypothesis is accepted.
(D) When the true null hypothesis is accepted.
Answer:(C)
21. Which one of the following tenets is not correct in the context of Central Limit Theorem ?
(A) If a population from which a sample is drawn is normally distributed the sampling
distribution of mean (SDM) will be normal for all sample sizes.
(B) The mean of the SDM is the population mean.
(C) If the population is not normal from which the sample is drawn, the SDM is not
normal for any sample size.
(D) If the population is not normal from which a sample is drawn, the SDM approaches
normality as the sample size increases.
Answer:(C)
22. Which one of the following is not an example of tax evasion?
(A) Submitting misleading documents.
(B) Not maintaining proper accounts of income earned.
(C) Suppression of facts.
(D) Interpreting the tax law in ones own way to minimise tax liability.
Answer:(D)
23. Which one of the following is not the purpose of performance-monitoring research ?
(A) To provide feedback for evaluation and control.
(B) To indicate things that are not going as planned.
(C) To help the organisation to plan various activities.
(D) It is required to explain why something went wrong.
Answer:(C)
24. The transformation of raw data into a form that will make them easy to understand and
interpret, rearranging and manipulating data to generate information is called
(A) Descriptive research (B) Descriptive analysis
(C) Causal research (D) Exploratory research
Answer:(B)
25. Assertion (A) : The span of management at the upper level is generally narrow while at
the lower level span is wide.
Reason (R) : The task allocated to subordinates at the lower level of management are
more specific and precise and thus making supervision easy and simple.
Suggest correct code :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:(C)
26. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. To check the quality of work i. Speed loss
b. To see that work is completed in time ii. Inspector
c. To check absenteeism of workers iii. Instruction and check
d. To issue instructions regarding methods of work iv. Shop discipline
Select the code :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer:(B)
27. F.W. Taylor called “The Military type of Foreman” to
(A) Unity of Command (B) Span of Control
(C) Delegated Legislature (D) Department
Answer:(A)
28. Match the items of List – I with List – II :
List – I List – II
a. Commentary Four Chambault i. F.W. Taylor
b. Midvale Steel Works ii. Claud Henry Saint Simon
c. Charleton Twist Company iii. Henry Fayol
d. Credit Mobilier iv. Robert Owen
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii i iv ii
Answer:(D)
29. Assertion (A) : The risk condition exists when decision makers have absolutely no idea of
what the results of an implemented alternative would be.
Reason (R) : When operating under complete uncertainty condition, decision makers
usually find that sound decisions are a matter of chance.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
Answer:(D)
30. Assertion (A) : In product concept, focus is on innovating and improving products.
Reason (R) : In selling concept, consumers are persuaded to buy products.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:(A)
31. Which of the following is not a method of segmenting a market ?
(A) Behavioural segmentation
(B) Psychographic segmentation
(C) Benefits segmentation
(D) Customer segmentation
Answer:(D)
32. Consumer attitudes and beliefs about diet, health and nutrition are influenced by
(A) Economic environment
(B) Cultural environment
(C) Social environment
(D) Natural environment
Answer:(B)
33. Select the phases of Product Life Cycle :
1. Initiation 2. Decline
3. Boom 4. Introduction
5. Maturity 6. Growth
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 5, 6 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 4, 6, 5, 2 (D) 2, 3, 5, 6
Answer:(C)
34. Which of the following is not a product-mix strategy ?
(A) Trading up (B) Alteration
(C) Simplification (D) Value addition
Answer:(D)
35. “Relationship” in marketing means
(A) Relation between buyer and seller
(B) Relation between sales person
(C) Relation between company and consumers
(D) All of the above
Answer:(C)
36. Match the items of List – I with the items of the List – II :
List – I List – II
(Company Name) (Brand)
a. HUL i. Cerelac
b. ITC ii. Eclares
c. Nestle iii. Vivel
d. Cadbury iv. Sunsilk
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer:(A)
37. The following are the steps in designing the market driven distribution :
1. Know what customers want 2. Determine the costs
3. Review assumptions 4. Decide on the outlet
5. Compare alternatives 6. Implement changes
Select the right sequence of the steps from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3, 6 (B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6
(C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2, 6 (D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1
Answer:(A)
38. Which of the following are consumption values that customers look for in any product or
service in a society ?
1. Functional value
2. Social value
3. Money value
4. Emotional value
5. Maximum value
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 5 (B) 1, 3, 4, 5
(C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:(D)
39. Franchising is a practice of :
(A) Leasing for a prescribed period of time, the right to use firm’s successful business
model and brand.
(B) Selling out a successful business model and brand.
(C) Hiring a firm’s successful business model and brand.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:(A)
40. Underwriters of the security issues are required to
(A) Purchase the securities underwritten
(B) Work as agent of the company for marketing the securities
(C) Manage the issues of the securities
(D) Take up securities not subscribed by investors
Answer:(D)
41. The optimum capital structure of a company is planned as per considerations of
I. Profitability II. Solvency
III. Marketability of shares IV. Control
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV only (B) II, III and IV only
(C) I and II only (D) III and IV only
Answer:(B)
42. Assertion (A) : Investors in capital market seem to be inclined for fixed income securities.
Reason (R) : Debt instruments now have active secondary market.
Codes :
(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of
(A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is not correct, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer:(C)
43. Insufficient working capital in any enterprise may also result into
I. Failure to adapt to changes
II. Overcapitalisation
III. Reduced availability of trade and cash discounts
IV. Reduced volume of production and sales
Codes :
(A) I, II and III only (B) I, III and IV only
(C) II and III only (D) I and IV only
Answer:(B)
44. Assertion (A) : Arbitrage keeps the cost of capital constant despite change in the capital
structure.
Reason (R) : It ensures compensating inverse change in cost of equity capital with a
change in the cost of debt capital.
Codes :
(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is not correct, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer:(A)
45. Assertion (A) : High morale and high productivity go hand-in-hand.
Reason (R) : Workers do not have their own ways for relief from fatigue
and monotony.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:(D)
46. Relationship at work is the source of
(A) Status anxiety (B) Managerial stress
(C) Legitimate power (D) Expert power
Answer:(B)
47. Match the group of words in List – I with the group of words in List – II :
List – I List – II
a. Grievances i. Profit sharing
b. Impact of technology ii. Effective planning
c. Adjustment to technology iii. Index of low morale
d. Morale improvement iv. Changes in occupation
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer:(D)
48. Assertion (A) : Functional conflict is a type of institutionalised conflict.
Reason (R) : Politics is a kind of emergent conflict.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:(A)
49. Formal conflict is a kind of
(A) Goal Conflict
(B) Organisational Conflict
(C) Role Conflict
(D) Emergent Conflict
Answer:(B)
50. One of the objectives of organisational change is
(A) Increased motivation
(B) Greater innovation
(C) Solving inter-group problems
(D) Changes in an organisation’s level of adaptation to its environment
Answer:(D)
51. Assertion (A) : Job design relates to the manner in which tasks are put together to form
complete job.
Reason (R) : The matrix organisation is a project organisation plus a functional
organisation.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:(A)
52. HRD as a total system includes the following major sub-systems :
1. Performance Appraisal
2. Career Planning
3. Role Analysis
4. ABC Analysis
5. Rewards
Select the correct answer from the codes.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3, 5
(C) 2, 3, 4, 5 (D) 1, 3, 4, 5
Answer:(B)
53. Which of the following is not true about employee grievances ?
(A) Grievance is a sign of employee’s discontent with job or its nature.
(B) Grievance provides a downward channel of communication.
(C) Grievance arises only when an employee feels that injustice has been done to him.
(D) Grievance can be real or imaginary.
Answer:(B)
54. Which of the following is not a component of Job Analysis ?
(A) Job Description (B) Role Analysis
(C) Job Summary (D) Job Specification
Answer:(C)
55. As per the Master Circular on “Prudential Norms on Capital Adequacy – Basel I
Framework”, elements of Tier I capital include :
(i) Authorised Capital (Ordinary shares), statutory reserves, all other free reserves
(disclosed), if any.
(ii) Paid-up capital (Preference shares).
(iii) Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares (PNCPS).
(iv) Innovative Perpetual Debt Instruments (IPDI).
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (iii) and (iv) only
Answer:(D)
56. What is true about the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) ?
(i) BCBS is an Indian National Committee of banking supervisory authority.
(ii) BCBS was established by a group of 19 nationalized commercial banks.
(iii) BCBS was established in 1996.
(iv) It provides a forum for regular cooperation on banking supervisory matters.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv) only (D) (iv) only
Answer:(D)
57. Under the Cooperative Bank structure, the apex institution is
(A) National Cooperative Bank (B) State Cooperative Bank
(C) District Cooperative Bank (D) IDBI Bank
Answer:(B)
58. What is SLR ratio of a bank ?
(A) Ratio of total deposits against total investments.
(B) Amount deposited by the bank with the Central Bank in the form of cash, gold and
securities.
(C) Amount that commercial banks are required to maintain before providing credit to
customers.
(D) Amount that commercial banks deposit with the foreign banks.
Answer:(C)
59. Assertion (A) : The USA remains the world’s largest FDI recipient country.
Reason (R) : The global economic crisis of 2009, causes a reduction of global FDI flows
took place to USA.
Select the correct code :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer:(A)
60. As per the South Asia Free Trade Agreement, 1993 of SAARC, the member countries
have to bring their duties down to
(A) 25 percent by 2006 (B) 15 percent by 2006
(C) 10 percent by 2007 (D) 20 percent by 2007
Answer:(D)
61. Which of the following is the correct combination ?
(i) A GSA allows an MNE to enter into activities that might too costly and risky to
pursue on its own.
(ii) A GSA does not allow a firm to enhance economics of scale.
(iii) A GSA does not allow a firm to bypass entry barriers into a target foreign country.
(iv) A GSA allows a firm to acquire partner knowledge.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iv) are correct.
(B) (i), (ii) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:(A)
62. Which of the following are the outcomes of the Sixth Ministerial Conference of WTO
which was held at Hong Kong in December 2005 ?
Select the correct combination :
(i) Resolve to complete the Doha Work Programme fully and to conclude negotiations
in 2006.
(ii) Amendments to TRIPS agreement reaffirmed to address public health concerns of
developing countries.
(iii) To continue export subsidies in agriculture upto 2018.
(iv) Duty free, quota free market access for all LDC’s products to all developed
countries.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iv) only
Answer:(A)
63. Which of the following is not a function of Foreign Exchange Market ?
(A) Stabilization function (B) Hedging function
(C) Credit function (D) Transfer function
Answer:(A)
64. Assertion (A) : The impact of depreciating Indian Rupee leads to less competition for
Indian firms from imports.
Reason (R) : The depreciating Indian Rupee results in downward pressure on inflation .
Select the correct code :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer:(D)
65. In which of the following Stock Exchanges the GDR’s are listed ?
(i) London Stock Exchange
(ii) New-York Stock Exchange
(iii) Luxembourg Stock Exchange
(iv) Bombay Stock Exchange
(v) Singapore Stock Exchange
(vi) Hong Kong Exchange
Identify the correct combination :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(C) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(D) (i), (iii), (v) and (vi)
Answer:(D)
66. Statement I : FIIs do not invest in unlisted entities. They participate only through stock
exchanges.
Statement II : FIIs cannot invest at the time of initial allotment.
Select the correct code :
Codes :
(A) Statements I and II are correct.
(B) Statement I is true and II is false.
(C) Statement I is false and II is correct.
(D) Statements I and II are false.
Answer:(D)
67. ADRs’ and GDRs’ are an excellent means of investment to invest in India for
(A) NRIs’
(B) Foreign nationals
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:(C)
68. Which of the following is not provided by EXIM Bank, for financing overseas
investments ?
(A) Term loans to Indian Companies upto 80% of their equity investment in overseas
JV/WOS.
(B) Term loans to Indian Companies towards upto 100% of loan extended by them to
the overseas JV/WOS.
(C) Term loan to overseas JV/WOS towards part financing.
(D) Guarantee facility to the overseas JV/WOS for raising term loan/working capital
Answer:(B)
69. Under Section 271 C of the Income Tax Act, 1961 the amount of penalty for failure to
deduct tax at source is
(A) 10% of tax which is otherwise deductible under Section 194 C.
(B) 100% of tax which is otherwise deductible under Section 194 C.
(C) 200% of tax which is otherwise deductible under Section 194 C.
(D) 300% of tax which is otherwise deductible under Section 194 C.
Answer:(B)
70. Match the following items of List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Sections) (Maximum Deduction)
a. Section 80C of I.T. Act i. INR 10,000
b. Section 80D of I.T. Act ii.INR 40,000
c. Section 80 DDB of I.T. Act iii.INR 1,00,000
d. Section 80 TTA of I.T. Act iv. INR 15,000
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Answer:(B)
71. In which of the following cases, income of previous year is assessable in the previous year
itself ?
(A) A person in employment.
(B) A person engaged in illegal business.
(C) A person who is running charitable business.
(D) A person leaving India permanently.
Answer:(D)
72. Long term capital loss can be set off from which of the following ?
(A) Short term capital gain only
(B) Long term capital gain only
(C) Income from business and profession
(D) Capital gain head of income
Answer:(B)
73. In which of the following long term assets, cost indexation benefit is allowed ?
(A) Debentures issued by a company
(B) Self generated goodwill of a business
(C) Bonus shares allotted on 1-4-2000
(D) Jewellery
Answer:(D)
74. Calculate the Gross Annual Value from the following details :
Municipal Value – INR 45,000
Fair Rental Value – INR 50,000
Standard Rent – INR 48,000
Actual Rent – INR 42,000
(A) INR 50,000) INR 48,000
(C) INR 45,000 (D) 42,000
Answer:(B)
75. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is imposed on
(A) All companies
(B) Public Limited Companies only
(C) Private Limited Companies only
(D) Partnership Firms and Companies
Answer:(A)
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