POLITICAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory
Dec 2014
1. Who among the following defined civil power as “the right of making laws with
penalties… for the regulating and preserving of property, and of employing the force of
the community, in the execution of such laws… all this only for the public good.” ?
(A) Rousseau (B) Karl Marx
(C) John Locke (D) J.S. Mill
Answer:(C)
2. Who of the following said that, “the emancipation of the working class is the work of the
working class itself” ?
(A) Mao Tse Tung (B) V.I. Lenin
(C) Engels (D) Karl Marx
Answer(D)
3. Who of the following gave the slogan “Turn the imperialist war into a civil war, that is,
into to a proletarian revolution.” ?
(A) Kautsky (B) Trotsky
(C) Engels (D) Lenin
Answer(D)
4. Which of the following is not a feature of liberal communitarian debate ?
(A) Conception of self : ‘encumbered’ vs. ‘unencumbered’
(B) ‘Universalism’ vs. ‘Particularism’
(C) ‘State neutrality’ vs. ‘non-neutrality of State’
(D) Totalitarianism : ‘procedural’ vs. ‘communitarian’
Answer(D)
5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : For Plato great diversity of wealth was inconsistent with good
government.
Reason (R) : He saw no way to abolish the evil except by abolishing wealth itself, so
far as soldiers and rulers are concerned.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer(A)
6. Identify the correct sequence of the books written on Mahatma Gandhi on ascending order :
i. Richard Attenborough – In Search of Gandhi
ii. C.F. Andrews – Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas
iii. B. Bhattacharya – Evolution of the Political Philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi
iv. J.B. Kripalani – Gandhian Thought
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) ii, iv, iii, i (B) i, ii, iii, iv
(C) iii, i, iv, ii (D) iv, iii, i, ii
Answer(A)
7. St. Augustine’s De Civitate Dei is divided into
(A) 19 books (B) 20 books
(C) 21 books (D) 22 books
Answer(D)
8. Which of the following is not a reason for the decline of political theory of David Easton ?
(A) Historicism (B) Moral Relativism
(C) Ideological Reductionism (D) Hyperfactualism
Answer(C)
9. Which of the following is not a feature of Jayaprakash Narayan’s partyless democracy ?
(A) Dispersal of political power
(B) Constant watch of the representatives by the electing bodies
(C) Maximum propaganda
(D) Comparatively less expensive elections
Answer(C)
10. Who of the following advocated economic theory of democracy ?
(A) J. Lively (B) C.B. Macpherson
(C) Anthony Downs (D) D. Held
Answer(C)
11. Comparative politics as an autonomous discipline emerged
(A) in the 1970s (B) in the 1960s
(C) in the 1950s (D) in the 1930s
Answer(D)
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of a system, according to Almond ?
1. Comprehensiveness
2. Inter-dependence
3. Existence of boundaries
4. Availability of resources
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer(D)
13. Who among the following has used the concepts of goal changing, feedback and learning ?
(A) David Easton (B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Gabriel Almond (D) Lucian Pye
Answer(B)
14. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Positive feedback i. Edward Shils
b. The development of underdevelopment ii. Karl Deutsch
c. Modernising Oligarchy iii. Ortega Gasset
d. Nation – an organised human mass iv. Andre Gunder Frank
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) ii iv iii i
Answer(A)
15. The cultural thrust in comparative politics became prominent during
(A) the 1950s (B) the 1960s
(C) the early 1970s (D) the late 1970s
Answer(B)
16. Riots and demonstrations are the examples of
(A) Institutional interest groups
(B) Associational interest groups
(C) Non-associational interest groups
(D) Anomic interest groups
Answer(D)
17. Who among the following has defined legitimacy as “conviction on the part of the
member that it is right and proper to accept and obey the authorities” ?
(A) David Easton (B) Seymour Lipset
(C) Mark Suchman (D) Karl Friedrich
Answer(A)
18. Who among the following has classified dependency into ‘Colonial dependency’,
‘Financial-industrial dependency’ and ‘Technological-industrial dependency’ ?
(A) Andre Gunder Frank (B) Dos Santos
(C) Maurice Wallerstein (D) Samir Amin
Answer(B)
19. Who said, “Revolutions are the festivals of the oppressed and the exploited” ?
(A) Karl Marx (B) Lenin
(C) Mao (D) Skocpol
Answer(B)
20. Which of the following are the characteristics of Weber’s bureaucracy ?
1. Selection on the basis of professional qualifications
2. Appointment on contract basis
3. Staff members personally free
4. Officials free to leave the post
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer(D)
21. Khilafat Movement in India was started to show solidarity with the Sultan of
(A) Saudi Arabia (B) Turkey
(C) Iran (D) Iraq
Answer(B)
22. Which one of the following writs is issued against an inferior tribunal which has declined
to exercise its jurisdiction ?
(A) Certiorari (B) Prohibition
(C) Quo Warranto (D) Mandamus
Answer(D)
23. Who was the protem speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha ?
(A) Sumitra Mahajan (B) Meira Kumar
(C) Kamal Nath (D) L.K. Advani
Answer(C)
24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. S. Khilnani i. India After Gandhi : The History of the World’s Largest Democracy
b. Rajni Kothari ii. The Idea of India
c. R. Guha iii. The State Against Democracy : In Search of Human Governance
d. Atul Kohli iv. The Success of India’s Democracy
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer(A)
25. Who of the following is associated with the concept “Congress System” ?
(A) Morris Jones (B) Paul R. Brass
(C) Rajni Kothari (D) Subrata K. Mitra
Answer(C)
26. In India, ‘Collegium System’ was first introduced in relation to
(A) Executive
(B) Legislature
(C) Judiciary
(D) Union-State Relations
Answer(C)
27. Which one of the following does not qualify for curtailing the freedom of speech and
expression under Indian Constitution ?
(A) Security of the state
(B) Public order, decency, morality
(C) Demand for autonomy
(D) Contempt of Court
Answer(C)
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The transformation of the party system in India has centralized power at
tier two of the government, namely at the State level.
Reason (R) : Regional parties have less willingness to decentralize power.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer(A)
29. Which one of the following, bearing names of Chief Election Commissioners of India, is
arranged in chronological order ?
(A) S.P. Sen Verma, Sukumar Sen, J.M. Lyngdoh, T.N. Seshan
(B) Sukumar Sen, S.P. Sen Verma, T.N. Seshan, J.M. Lyngdoh
(C) S.P. Sen Verma, T.N. Seshan, Sukumar Sen, J.M. Lyngdoh
(D) Sukumar Sen, T.N. Seshan, S.P. Sen Verma, J.M. Lyngdoh
Answer(B)
30. Which of the following kinds of special provisions are made for the Scheduled Tribes in India ?
1. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. Central Government to give special grants for welfare.
3. Reservation of seats in public services and in employment.
4. Reservation of seats in educational institutions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer(D)
31. Which one of the following statements about the disadvantages of territorial principle of
administrative organization is wrong ?
(A) Not suitable for large areas
(B) Uniformity of administration becomes difficult
(C) Encourages localism
(D) Dominated by regional interests
Answer(A)
32. Which one of the following was not a substitute of Merit System found earlier ?
(A) Exchange System (B) Spoils System
(C) Sale of Offices (D) Patronage System
Answer(A)
33. What is the bill called that contains all the demands voted by the Lok Sabha and the
consolidated fund charges ?
(A) The Appropriation Bill
(B) Voting of Demands Bill
(C) Fiscal Policy Bill
(D) The Finance Bill
Answer(A)
34. Money received by the government of India under the State Provident Fund is credited to
(A) Consolidated Fund
(B) Treasury
(C) Public Account
(D) Contingency Fund
Answer(C)
35. Arrange the following in correct chronological order of the hierarchy of human needs
given by Maslow :
(A) Security – Social – Self-esteem – Biological – Self-actualization
(B) Self-esteem – Social – Biological – Self-actualization – Security
(C) Self-actualization – Self-esteem – Social – Security – Biological
(D) Biological – Security – Social –– Self-esteem – Self-actualization
Answer(D)
36. In UK, merit-based recruitment was adopted on the recommendation of which report ?
(A) Fulton Committee Report
(B) Northcote – Trevelyan Report
(C) Redcliff – Maud Commission Report
(D) Tomlin Commission Report
Answer(B)
37. Which one of the following was not included in the minimum criteria for ensuring good
national governance by Nayef Al-Rodhan in his book ‘Sustainable History and Dignity of
Man’ ?
(A) Equity and Inclusiveness (B) Rule of Law
(C) A system of checks and balances (D) Transparency
Answer(C)
38. Regarding the liability of holders of public office, when an official fails to perform a legal
duty, it is known as
(A) Malfeasance (B) Nonfeasance
(C) Disfeasance (D) Misfeasance
Answer(B)
39. Ombudsman in Sweden can take the following actions :
1. Can act against the judiciary
2. Can act on individual complaints
3. Can act against members of Parliament
4. Can act suo moto
Choose the correct answer from the code below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 (D) 2, 4
Answer(B)
40. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given
below :
List – I List – II
(Committees / Commissions) (Year of appointment)
a. Ashok Mehta Committee i. 1953-54
b. The Taxation Enquiry Committee ii. 1949-51
c. The Local Finance Enquiry Committee iii. 1978
d. G.V.K. Rao Committee iv. 1985
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer(C)
41. Game theory owes a heavy debt to the seminal work entitled, “The Theory of Games and
Economic Behaviour”. It has been written by
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) John Von Neumann and Oskar Morgenstern
(C) Karl Deutsch
(D) Michael Hass
Answer(B)
42. Who among the following has remarked that, power in a political context means
“the power of man over the minds and actions of other men” ?
(A) George Schwarzenberger
(B) Herman Heller
(C) Hans Morgenthau
(D) Bertrand Russell
Answer(C)
43. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Treaties/Proposals) (Year)
a. SALT II (Strategic Arms Limitation Talks) i. 1987
b. PTBT (Partial Test Ban Treaty) ii. 1979
c. Atom for Peace Proposal iii. 1963
d. INF Treaty (Intermediate Nuclear Force Treaty) iv. 1953
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iv ii i iii
(D) iii ii i iv
Answer(B)
44. Which one of the following factors contributed to the emergence of ‘New Detente’ after
Cold War ?
(A) Pressure by the Non-aligned Movement
(B) The signing of INF Treaty by Reagan and Gorbachev.
(C) Emergence of Namibia as a free African Nation
(D) Deployment of RDF (Rapid Deployment Force) in Persian Gulf
Answer(B)
45. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : India chose Non-alignment as a foreign policy choice in the post
independence period.
Reason (R) : NAM was an assertion of independence, equality and sovereignty.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answer(A)
46. The demand for New International Economic Order was first made at
(A) Tehran Summit
(B) Durban Summit
(C) Kuala Lumpur Summit
(D) Algiers Summit
Answer(D)
47. Which one of the following is not correct about Association of South East Asian Nations
(ASEAN) ?
(A) First India ASEAN Summit was held in November, 2002.
(B) ASEAN declared South East Asian Nuclear Weapon free zone in 1995.
(C) ASEAN is working to remove trade barriers and develop economic relationship with
China, Japan and South Korea.
(D) India became full dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1991.
Answer(D)
48. Who among the following used the phrase – The United Nations is ‘sharing in the name of
solidarity’ for underlining the necessity of the U.N. ?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Dag Hammarskjold
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Woodrow Wilson
Answer(B)
49. Which one of the following is not a feature of ‘Shopkeeper diplomacy’ ?
(A) It is based on peaceful approach.
(B) It is a means of diplomacy for maintaining peace through compromise.
(C) It is based on the sound business principles of moderation.
(D) It tries to safeguard national interest through war only
Answer(D)
.
50. Positive peace implies
(A) a ceasefire
(B) stopping the formation of death squads
(C) transformation of relationship
(D) social construction of war
_Answer(C)
Pol Science December 2014 Paper II Solved
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