Pol Science July 2016 Paper II Solved

POLITICAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions
of two (2) marks each. All

questions are compulsory.
1. For Plato which of the following statements is not true ?
 (a) Ideas are substances.
 (b) Ideas are essences of all things.
 (c) Ideas are reflections of things.
 (d) Ideas are universal.
 Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
 (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (d)
 (3) (b) only (4) (c) only
Answer:(4)

2. Who among the following called Machiavelli’s “Prince” the
great and true conception of a
real political genius with the highest and noblest purpose ?
 (1) Bentham (2) J.S. Mill
 (3) Hegel (4) Karl Marx
Answer:(3)

3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)

(a) Quentin Skinner (i) Philosophy and Human Sciences
(b) Michael Sandel (ii) The Foundations of Modern Political Thought
(c) Giovanni Sartori (iii) Liberalism and the Limits of Justice
(d) Charles Taylor (iv) Democratic Theory
Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
 (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
 (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer:(1)


4. Who among the following considers Marxism to be an ideology
rather than a political
theory ?
 (1) Germino (2) David Held
 (3) R.A. Dahl (4) G.H. Sabine
Answer:(1)


5. Arrange the following works of Isaiah Berlin in chronological
order of his publications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
 (a) Concepts and Categories : Philosophical Essays
 (b) Four Essays on Liberty
 (c) Vico and Herder : Two Studies in the History of Ideas
 (d) Karl Marx : His Life and Environment
Codes :
 (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (b), (a) and (d)
 (3) (d), (b), (c) and (a) (4) (b), (d), (a) and (c)
Answer:(3)

6. Who among the following conceived the society as ‘a cooperative
venture for mutual
advantage’ ?
 (1) Rawls (2) Nozick
 (3) Hayek (4) Gramsci
Answer:(1)


7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : For Rousseau a thinking man is a depraved animal.
Reason (R) : Common emotions give value to life.
 Codes :
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
 (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
 (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(1)


8. Who among the following rejected the idea that caste status was
the result of divine
reward or punishment ?
 (1) Bipin Chandra Pal (2) M.A. Jinnah
 (3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) M.K. Gandhi
Answer:(4)


9. Who among the following said : “Research untutored by theory
may prove trivial, and
theory unsupported by data, futile” ?
 (1) B. Crick (2) Charles Merriam
 (3) David Easton (4) R.A. Dahl
Answer:(3)

10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : For Fukuyama, liberal democracy may constitute the end point of
mankind’s ideological evolution.
Reason (R) : The earlier forms of government were characterised by grave defects and
irrationalities that led to their eventual collapse.
 Codes :
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
 (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
 (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(1)

11. Which of the following constitutes the political elite ?
 (1) Subalterns and marginalized leaders
 (2) Rulers and subjects
 (3) Leader and the followers
 (4) Oligarchy and Aristocracy
Answer:(4)

12. Who among the following is associated with the initial
stages in the growth of
comparative politics ?
 (1) Karl Popper (2) Arthur Bentley
 (3) E.H. Carr (4) Graham Wallas
Answer:(2)

13. Which branch of comparative politics seeks to examine the f
ormal and informal
mechanisms by which political attitudes are inculcated ?
 (1) Political socialization (2) Political communication
 (3) Political modernization (4) Political development
Answer:(1)

14. Who among the following contended that political development
is administrative and
legal development ?
 Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
 (a) R.R. Rostow (b) Talcott Parsons
 (c) Sorokin (d) Max Waber
Codes :
 (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
 (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
Answer:(1)

15. Who became the first ever Prime Minister in a
Parliamentary government ?
 (1) William Pitt, the Elder (2) Henry Pelham
 (3) William Putenny (4) Robert Walpole
Answer:(4)

16. Who among the following were associated with
institutional approach ?
 (A) Carew Hunt (B) Herman Finer
 (C) Roy C. Macridis (D) Carl Friedrich
 Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
 (1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (D)
 (3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (D)
Answer:(2)

17. Arrange the following revolutions in the sequence
in which they took place :
 (a) Chinese Revolution (b) Cuban Revolution
 (c) Bolshevik Revolution (d) Puritan Revolution
 Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
 (1) (a), (b), (d), (c) (2) (b), (a), (c), (d)
 (3) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) (c), (d), (b), (a)
Answer:(3)

18. Identify the correct sequence of the following input functions ?
 (i) Political communication (ii) Political socialization and recruitment
 (iii) Interest aggregation (iv) Interest articulation
 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
 (1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (iv), (i), (iii) and (ii)
 (3) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
Answer:(3)

19. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Iron law of oligarchy established that ultimate
decision-making in all
democratic organizations including the political parties is done by
few leaders or a small elite group.
Reason (R) : Decision making is very complex process which
necessarily involves the role of few who function on behalf of many.
 Codes :
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
 (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
 (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(1)

20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Military is predominant in non-western democracies.
Reason (R) : Social fragmentation and cleavages largely
contribute to political instability.
 Codes :
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
 (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
 (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(2)

21. Identify the correct chronological order of the formation
of the following political parties
in India :
 (1) Justice Party, Hindu Maha Sabha, National Conference,
Shiromani Akali Dal
 (2) National conference, Shiromani Akali Dal, Hindu Maha
Sabha, Justice Party
 (3) Hindu Maha Sabha, Shiromani Akali Dal, National
Conference, Justice Party
 (4) Justice Party, Shiromani Akali Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha,
National Conference
Answer:(4)


22. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1) Conditions of eligibility of a Governor : Article 158
(2) Dismissal of a Governor by the President : Article 156 (2)
(3) Nomination of members of Legislative Council by the
Governor : Article 171 (5)
(4) Power of the Governor to recommend ‘Money Bill’
: Article 207
Answer:(2)

23. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the codes given
below :
Statement I : The only mode of initiating a proposal for
amendment is to introduce a bill in either house of the Union Parliament.
Statement II : If there is a disagreement between the two Houses of
Parliament regarding
the passage of a bill, the deadlock may be resolved by a joint
session of the two
Houses.
Codes :
 (1) Only Statement I is true. (2) Only Statement II is true.
 (3) Both Statements I and II are true. (4) Both Statements
I and II are false.
Answer:(3)

24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) 36th Constitutional (i) Transparency in judicial
Amendment Act appointments

(b) 61st Constitutional (ii) Declaration of Sikkim as a full
Amendment Act fledged state

(c) 97th Constitutional (iii) Lowering of voting age from 21
Amendment Act to 18 years

(d) 99th Constitutional (iv) Formation and functioning of co
Amendment Act operative societies

Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
 (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
 (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
 (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer:(4)


25. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Granville Austin (i) ‘Quasi federal’
(b) K.C. Wheare (ii) ‘Federation with strong
centralising tendency’
(c) Appleby (iii) ‘Cooperative federalism’
(d) Ivor Jennings (iv) ‘Extremely federal’
Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
 (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
 (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
 (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer:(3)


26. Match List – I with List – II and identify the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Acts) (Provision)


(a) Government of (i) Introduction of bi-cameral
India Act, 1858 legislature for the first time

(b) Indian Councils Act, (ii) Complete imperial control by
1861 Secretary of State for India

(c) Indian Councils Act, (iii) Inclusion of non-official members
1909 in the Executive Council of Governor
General for the first time

(d) Government of (iv) Separate representation of the
India Act, 1919 Muslim community

Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
 (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
 (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
 (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer:(1)


27. Which of the following statements about the Writ
of Habeas Corpus is correct ?
 (1) It can be issued to secure the release of a person
who has been imprisoned by a court of law on a criminal
charge.

 (2) It can be issued to interfere with the proceeding for
contempt by a Court of record or by Parliament.

 (3) The writ is a very powerful safeguard to the subject
against arbitrary acts not only of private individuals but
also of the executive.

 (4) By this writ, the Court can obtain knowledge of the
 reason a person has been imprisoned but cannot set
her/him free if the imprisonment is unlawful.
Answer:(3)

28. Assertion (A) : In the first three general elections,
India produced a ‘one party
dominance’ model, which is different from one party system.
Reason (R) : Till 1967, the Congress party had exclusive control
over governmental
power both at the Centre and also in most of the states of India.
 Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(1)

29. Arrange the following Speakers of Lok Sabha of India in
chronological order and select
the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. Dr. Balram Jakhar II. Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon
 III. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy IV. Bali Ram Bhagat
Code :
 (1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, III, I, IV
 (3) III, II, IV, I (4) III, IV, II, I
Answer:(3)

30. Which of the following High Courts have Bench/Benches ?
(1) Allahabad, Bombay, Jabalpur
(2) Jodhpur, Bombay, Hyderabad
(3) Calcutta, Guwahati, Bangalore
(4) Jabalpur, Madras, Guwahati
Answer:(1)


31. According to Peter Self, the study of public administration
developed as an offshoot of
which one of the following ?
 (1) Political Science or Public law (2) Politics or Ethics
 (3) Public Policy or Policy making (4) Political system or
interest aggregation
Answer:(1)

32. Which one of the following is not a part of the underlying
ideas of traditional or
mechanistic theory of organization ?
 (1) It takes an administrative view of human relationship.
 (2) It considers economic incentives to be the sole motivating factor.
 (3) It ignores the dynamics of organizational behavior.
 (4) It gives more importance to informal relationship.
Answer:(4)

33. Which one of the following key components of ‘governance’ was
not identified by OECD,
while laying down conditions for receiving economic
assistance ?
 (1) Participatory development (2) Strict auditing
 (3) Human rights (4) Democratisation
Answer:(2)

34. Cybernetics means :
(1) Science of communicating
(2) Communication methods
(3) Artificial intelligence
(4) Science of control and communication
Answer:(4)

35. Who among the following thinkers advocated ‘effective
communication’ as a basic pre-requisite for the attainment
of organizational goals ?
 (1) Herbert Simon (2) Peter Self
 (3) Chester Barnard (4) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:(3)

36. Taking an extreme view of the distinction between
public and private administration, who
said that all organizations share public and private features ?
 (1) Dwight Waldo (2) E.S. Savas
 (3) Barry Bozeman (4) James W. Fesler
Answer:(3)

37. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : Some departments are concerned not only with
purely administrative
work but some authority to make rules and regulations is also
delegated to them by the legislature.
Reason (R) : John M. Pfiffner prefers single head of the
department under certain
circumstances.
 Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:(2)

38. What is common among Duncan Black, Anthony Dowas,
James Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow ?
 (1) They are all advocates of Public Choice Theory in public administration.
 (2) They are all ex-Cabinet Secretaries of UK.
 (3) They are all supporters of Whitley Councils in UK.
 (4) They are all exponents of classical theories of administration.
Answer:(1)

39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Books) (Author)

(a) An Introduction to (i) Frank J. Goodnow
Administrative Law
(b) Justice and Administrative Law (ii) A.V. Dicey
(c) Comparative Administrative Law (iii) James Hart
(d) Introduction to the Study
of the Law of the Constitution (iv) W.A. Robson

Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
 (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
 (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
 (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer:(3)


40. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
Committees/Commissions/Reports ?
 (1) Masterman Committee – Brownlow Committee
 – Gladstone Committee – Aitchison Commission
 (2) Aitchison Commission –Gladstone Committee
 – Brownlow Committee - Masterman Committee
 (3) Aitchison Commission – Masterman Committee
 – Brownlow Committee – Gladstone Committee
 (4) Gladstone Committee – Aitchison Commission
– Masterman Committee – Brownlow Committee
Answer:(2)

41. Who among the following declared that the state is
retreating in the face of the superior
power of globalization ?
 (1) McLean and McMillan (2) George Schwarzenberger
 (3) Kenneth Waltz (4) Susan Strange
Answer:(4)

42. Who among the following argued that ‘realism is
likely to remain the single most useful
instrument in our intellectual toolbox’ ?
 (1) Holsti (2) E.H. Carr
 (3) Hans Margenthau (4) Stephen Walt
Answer:(4)


43. Which of the following is not the basic norm of the
balance of power system that are clear
to each of the state actors engaged in the process of balancing :
 (1) Any actor or coalition that tries to assume dominance
must be constrained.
 (2) States want to increase their capabilities by acquiring
territory, increasing their population or developing economically.
 (3) Negotiating is better than fighting.
 (4) Other states are viewed as potential enemies.
Answer:(4)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Scholar) (Statement)

(a) McLean and (i) It is not so much the absolute power of a
McMillan state as its power position in relation to other
states that counts.

(b) Morgenthau                         (ii) Defined power as the capacity to impose
one’s will on others by reliance on effective
sanctions in the case of non-compliance
.
(c) George
Schwarzerberger (iii) Defined power as man’s control over the
minds and actions of other men.
(d) Van Dyke (iv) Power is the ability to make people do what they
would not otherwise have done.
Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
 (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
 (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer:(1)


45. Article 25 of the Charter of the United Nations provides that
 (1) Use of force is allowed for self-defence.
 (2) Only peace loving states can become members of UN.
 (3) All UN members agree to accept and carry-out the
decisions of the Security Council.
 (4) The Security Council has primary responsibility under the
Charter for the maintenance of international peace and security
Answer:(3)
.
46. Which of the following has not been incorporated into
Indian law, either fully or
partially ?
 (1) The Tokyo Convention Act 1975
 (2) The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.
 (3) The Anti-Apartheid (United Nations Convention) Act, 1981
 (4) The Geneva Convention Act, 1960
Answer:(2)

47. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
International Criminal Court ?
 (1) The statute of International Criminal Court was adopted
by United Nations Conference on 18th July, 1998.
 (2) The International Criminal Court is not an organ of
United Nations but it is an independent organization.
 (3) Its statute came into force on 1st July, 2002.
 (4) The four organs of International Criminal Court are
the Presidency, the Judicial Division, the office of the
Prosecutor and the Registry.
Answer:(1)

48. In which year the UN General Assembly adopted the
Convention on the Rights of Persons
with Disabilities ?
 (1) 2006 (2) 2007
 (3) 2008 (4) 2009
Answer:(1)

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Committee of (Issues related to Committee)
General Assembly of UN)
(a) First Committee (i) Economic and financial
(b) Second Committee (ii) Disarmament and international security
(c) Third Committee (iii) Special political and decolonisation
(d) Fourth Committee (iv) Social, humanitarian and cultural
Codes :
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
 (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 (3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
 (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer:(1)

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : End of Cold War signified a shift from
ideological politics in International relations.
Reason (R) : Religious fundamentalism is posing a
threat to security.
 Codes :
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
 (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
 (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer:(2)